[Nov-2025] 300-740 Dumps PDF - 300-740 Real Exam Questions Answers [Q92-Q112]

[Nov-2025] 300-740 Dumps PDF - 300-740 Real Exam Questions Answers

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Cisco 300-740 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Threat Response: This section of the exam measures skills of Incident Response Engineers and focuses on responding to threats through automation and data analysis. It covers how to act based on telemetry and audit reports, manage user or application compromises, and implement response steps such as containment, reporting, remediation, and reinstating services securely.
Topic 2	SAFE Key Structure: This section of the exam measures skills of Network Security Designers and focuses on the SAFE framework's key structural elements. It includes understanding ‘Places in the Network’—the different network zones—and defining ‘Secure Domains’ to organize security policy implementation effectively.
Topic 3	Visibility and Assurance: This section of the exam measures skills of Security Operations Center (SOC) Analysts and focuses on monitoring, diagnostics, and compliance. It explains the Cisco XDR solution, discusses visibility automation, and describes tools for traffic analysis and log management. The section also involves diagnosing application access issues, validating telemetry for behavior analysis, and verifying user access with tools like firewall logs, Duo, and Cisco Secure Workload.
Topic 4	User and Device Security: This section of the exam measures skills of Identity and Access Management Engineers and deals with authentication and access control for users and devices. It covers how to use identity certificates, enforce multifactor authentication, define endpoint posture policies, and configure single sign-on (SSO) and OIDC protocols. The section also includes the use of SAML to establish trust between devices and applications.
Topic 5	Integrated Architecture Use Cases: This section of the exam measures the skills of Cloud Solution Architects and covers key capabilities within an integrated cloud security architecture. It focuses on ensuring common identity across platforms, setting multicloud policies, integrating secure access service edge (SASE), and implementing zero-trust network access models for more resilient cloud environments.
Topic 6	Cloud Security Architecture: This section of the exam measures the skills of Cloud Security Architects and covers the fundamental components of the Cisco Security Reference Architecture. It introduces the role of threat intelligence in identifying and mitigating risks, the use of security operations tools for monitoring and response, and the mechanisms of user and device protection. It also includes strategies for securing cloud and on-premise networks, as well as safeguarding applications, workloads, and data across environments.
Topic 7	Application and Data Security This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Security Analysts and explores how to defend applications and data from cyber threats. It introduces the MITRE ATT&CK framework, explains cloud attack patterns, and discusses mitigation strategies. Additionally, it covers web application firewall functions, lateral movement prevention, microsegmentation, and creating policies for secure application connectivity in multicloud environments.
Topic 8	SAFE Architectural Framework: This section of the exam measures skills of Security Architects and explains the Cisco SAFE framework, a structured model for building secure networks. It emphasizes the importance of aligning business goals with architectural decisions to enhance protection across the enterprise.
Topic 9	Industry Security Frameworks: This section of the exam measures the skills of Cybersecurity Governance Professionals and introduces major industry frameworks such as NIST, CISA, and DISA. These frameworks guide best practices and compliance in designing secure systems and managing cloud environments responsibly.

 

NEW QUESTION # 92
To allow users a seamless and secure login experience across multiple applications, many organizations configure _________ using an identity provider connection.

• A. antivirus software
• B. firewalls
• C. VPNs
• D. SAML/SSO

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 93
An organization is distributed across several sites. Each site is connected to the main HQ using site-to-site VPNs implemented using Secure Firewall Threat Defense. Which functionality must be implemented if the security manager wants to send SaaS traffic directly to the internet?

• A. IPsec tunnels
• B. Policy-based routing
• C. ECMP routing
• D. Multi-instances

Answer: B

Explanation:
Policy-Based Routing (PBR) enables routing decisions based on criteria such as source IP, destination IP, or application. To send SaaS traffic (e.g., Office 365, Salesforce) directly to the internet rather than over a site-to- site VPN, PBR must be configured at each site firewall. According to SCAZT Section 1 (Cloud Security Architecture, Pages 18-20), this approach enables secure local internet breakout-commonly used in direct internet access (DIA) architectures.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 1, Pages 18-20

NEW QUESTION # 94
A network administrator uses Cisco Umbrella to protect internal users from malicious content. A customer is using an IPsec tunnel to connect to an Umbrella Organization. The administrator was informed about a zero- day vulnerability that infects user machines and uploads sensitive data through the RDP port. The administrator must ensure that no users are connected to the internet using the RDP protocol. Which Umbrella configuration must the administrator apply?

• A. Web policy to block Remote Desktop Manager application type
• B. Firewall policy and set port 3389 to be blocked for all outgoing traffic
• C. Data loss prevention policy to block all file uploads with RDP application mime type
• D. DNS policy to block Remote Desktop Manager application type

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389. Cisco Umbrella includes a cloud-delivered firewall that can be used to block outbound traffic by port. In this case, since the RDP communication needs to be prevented regardless of application name resolution, the best approach is to use a Firewall policy in Umbrella to block port 3389 traffic across the tunnel.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 3:
Network and Cloud Security, Pages 72-75.

NEW QUESTION # 95
URL filtering at the DNS layer is effective in:

• A. Increasing the load on internal DNS servers
• B. Reducing the effectiveness of web caching
• C. Only resolving domain names faster
• D. Blocking malicious domains before a connection is established

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 96
For a cloud service provider, security policies based on application connectivity requirements might include:

• A. Using a single set of security policies for all types of applications
• B. Disabling encryption to enhance performance
• C. Implementing secure VPN connections for sensitive applications
• D. Always allowing direct connections to the internet for all applications

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 97
Endpoint posture policies are used to assess:

• A. The speed of the network connection
• B. The security readiness of a device before granting network access
• C. The user's physical location
• D. The user's personal preferences for software

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 98

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure SAML SSO in Cisco ISE to use Microsoft Azure AD as an identity provider. These configurations were performed:
* Configure a SAML IdP in ISE.
* Configure the Azure AD IdP settings.
Which two actions must the engineer take in Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)

• A. Configure the Internal Identity Source Sequence setting.
• B. Add a SAML IdP.
• C. Configure SAML groups in ISE.
• D. Upload metadata from Azure AD to ISE.
• E. Configure the External Identity Sources settings.

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
When integrating Cisco ISE with Azure AD using SAML SSO:
B: The Azure AD metadata must be uploaded into ISE to establish trust and allow token validation.
D: External Identity Sources settings must be configured in ISE to recognize and process authentication requests via SAML-based identity providers like Azure AD.
These are mandatory steps for enabling browser-based SSO authentication in ISE as explained in SCAZT Section 2 (User and Device Security, Pages 42-44), which describes federated identity integration.
Note: Option A is already completed as stated in the prompt. Options C and E are not essential to the authentication flow in this SAML context.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 2, Pages 42-44

NEW QUESTION # 99
The main goal of implementing secure domains within the SAFE framework is to:

• A. Improve security by creating defined areas of trust
• B. Enhance the flexibility of network configurations
• C. Simplify the user authentication process
• D. Increase operational efficiency

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following are purposes of URL filtering in controlling access to cloud applications?

• A. To prevent access to malicious websites
• B. To increase internet speed
• C. To block access to unauthorized web content
• D. To monitor employee productivity

Answer: A,C

NEW QUESTION # 101
The function of a reverse proxy includes:

• A. Acting as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from servers
• B. Directly exposing internal network architecture to the internet
• C. Decreasing the security of web applications
• D. Slowing down the access to web services

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 102
SAML and OIDC are both standards used for:

• A. Encrypting data on a device
• B. User and device authentication in single sign-on scenarios
• C. Physical security of devices
• D. Web filtering

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 103
When choosing a Web Application Firewall (WAF), it is important to consider its ability to:

• A. Only protect against DDoS attacks
• B. Replace traditional network firewalls
• C. Serve as the only layer of security for web applications
• D. Defend against a wide range of web application attacks, such as SQL injection and XSS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 104
Security services edge (SSE) combines which of the following services for enhanced security at the network edge?

• A. Secure Web Gateway (SWG)
• B. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
• C. Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
• D. Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA)

Answer: A,C,D

NEW QUESTION # 105
Network security in the Cisco Security Reference Architecture is divided into which two areas?

• A. Wired and wireless
• B. Internal and external
• C. Cloud-based and on-premises
• D. Physical and virtual

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 106
When an application is compromised, the first response action is typically to:

• A. Immediately notify the public
• B. Amplify the breach
• C. Increase user privileges
• D. Contain the breach to prevent further unauthorized access

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 107
Endpoint posture policies help ensure that:

• A. Network performance is degraded
• B. Users can bypass security measures
• C. Devices meet security standards before accessing network resources
• D. Devices have unlimited access to resources

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 108
Which web application firewall deployment in the Cisco Secure DDoS protects against application layer and volumetric attacks?

• A. Active/passive
• B. Always-on
• C. On-demand
• D. Hybrid

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the SCAZT guide, the "Always-on" deployment mode for Cisco Secure DDoS (including integration with Secure Web Application Firewall solutions) provides continuous protection for both volumetric and application-layer attacks. This deployment model ensures that all traffic flows through the scrubbing and WAF infrastructure without requiring traffic redirection only during attack events. It provides real-time mitigation and immediate detection, which is essential to address both volumetric attacks (e.g., SYN floods) and Layer 7 (application-layer) attacks such as HTTP floods and injection-based threats.
While "Hybrid" and "On-demand" modes are useful for specific use cases, only "Always-on" offers continuous and comprehensive protection required for environments that demand consistent uptime and threat prevention.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 3:
Network and Cloud Security, Pages 68-71.

NEW QUESTION # 109
According to the MITRE ATT&CK framework, which approach should be used to mitigate exploitation risks?

• A. Keeping systems updated with the latest patches
• B. Consistently maintaining up-to-date antivirus software
• C. Ensuring that network traffic is closely monitored and controlled
• D. Performing regular data backups and testing recovery procedures

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to the MITRE ATT&CK framework and the SCAZT documentation, one of the most effective mitigation techniques against exploitation is to keep systems updated with the latest patches. Exploitation typically targets known vulnerabilities in operating systems and applications. Timely patching significantly reduces the risk of successful exploitation, especially zero-day vulnerabilities once disclosed.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 6:
Threat Response, Pages 108-110; MITRE ATT&CK Enterprise Mitigation ID M1051 - Update Software.

NEW QUESTION # 110
Which types of algorithm does a web application firewall use for zero-day DDoS protection?

• A. Stochastic and event-based
• B. Adaptive and behavioral-based
• C. Correlative and feedback-based
• D. Reactive and heuristic-based

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the SCAZT documentation, web application firewalls (WAFs) designed to protect against zero- day Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks leverage adaptive and behavioral-based algorithms.
These algorithms dynamically analyze traffic patterns, baseline normal behavior, and detect anomalies that could indicate novel or zero-day attacks. Unlike signature-based detection, adaptive and behavioral methods adjust in real-time to emerging threats, learning from ongoing traffic without relying on pre-defined rules.
This proactive approach enables rapid detection and mitigation of unknown DDoS vectors, critical for cloud and network security where threats evolve constantly.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT) Study Guide, Section 3: Network and Cloud Security, Pages 75-77.

NEW QUESTION # 111
The primary purpose of Cisco Secure Analytics and Logging is to:

• A. Decrease the storage of logs and analytics data
• B. Enhance visibility into security and network events for better incident analysis
• C. Focus solely on external threat actors while ignoring insider threats
• D. Simplify attacks on network infrastructure

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 112
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